"The fear of יהוה is the beginning of wisdom, And the knowledge of the Set-apart One is understanding"

Geneology and Yahshua's Pre-existence

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chuckbaldwin
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Postby chuckbaldwin » 03 Mar 2008, 04:35

eriqbenel wrote:BTW, for the sake of those who are interested in this discussion, let's continue it here only. Chuck and Cheri have started a campaign against my position on another thread and I really don't wish to dignify them with a response.. Matthew 7:6.
Eriq,

I'm sorry to have to interrupt your "private" discussion again, but that's ABSOLUTEY NOT TRUE! And i feel obligated to set the record straight. First, you wanted to take the discussion to private email between you & Matthew, and now that i've started another thread, you flip-flop and say you want to continue it here.

There is no special "campaign" against your position, any more than what Matthew is doing in this thread, which is simply discussing points. YOU are the one who indicated the desire for a private discussion with Matthew. I even asked for permission to post in this thread, and said i would start another thread if i was denied. And Cherie didn't start anything. She just made a normal response to my initial post, with some questions.

Since you didn't grant my request for permission, i simply started the separate thread in order to stay out of your & Matthew's way. If you're so insecure in your position that you won't dignify me with a response, that's fine with me, because experience has shown that nearly ALL of your responses to me are anything BUT "dignified" as evidenced by your demeaning ref to Mt.7:6. I hope you will at least read my initial post, because it addresses what seems to be your main objection.
Last edited by chuckbaldwin on 06 Mar 2008, 20:59, edited 1 time in total.
Chuck Baldwin
By this shall all men know you are my disciples: if you have love one for another.

ErichMatthewJanzen
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Postby ErichMatthewJanzen » 03 Mar 2008, 12:04

Shalom, Brother Eric,

Hope you have a great day Brother!

You wrote:

Ok, well that's my point. Why wouldn't Yochanon and Mark write of such a MONUMENTAL event? Their gospels were written EARLIER than the others..


I reply: I don't know why, and it seems to me personally that I would have had I been them. However, the fact that does remain is that both Matthew and Luke did record the event, and I believe that should be sufficient for us to believe that such truly occurred. The Holy Spirit could have moved upon Mark and John to hone in on other strong points in Yeshua's life. I've often found it strange in my mind that Mark just begins with Yeshua as a full grown man. What happened during his childhood? Only Luke (that I'm aware of) records any happening in His childhood (aside from His birth). All this being said I just believe all of what each author wrote. If one author is the only one who mentions something, I still believe that particular something; if two authors mention another occurrence, I don't see any reason to doubt it's authenticity.

You wrote:

At least none you will consider...


I reply: You wrote this comment in response to my statement of: "The virgin birth stories are in the Bible, and there is no evidence known to me that they are interpolations."

It's not that there is evidence and I will not consider it - I've never been given any evidence by any non-virgin birth proponent of the virgin birth accounts in Matthew and Luke being interpolated. I did have two people give me the preface to a Catholic Bible that they claimed showed the accounts to be interpolated, and I examined it and found it not to be saying that at all.

If I was a Trinitarian, believing in the passage at 1 John 5:7, I would have to see manuscript evidence from that epistle - at that particular place - to persuade me of it's doubtful authenticiy. For someone to tell me, "Well, Peter didn't record this saying..." wouldn't be sufficient for me to believe that John didn't record it. To date, no one has produced (to me) any manuscripts of Matthew and Luke that do not contain the virgin birth accounts. I'm saying that if the evidence is there somebody please show me because I do not want to believe a lie and thus believe and teach falsely.

Concerning dating the gospels I would be glad to discuss this, but I do not have the time to do so right now. We may should even have a separate thread dealing with the issue.

BTW, I agree that we should discuss the passages (in Matthew and Luke) as they stand. I don't see any other way to approach the issue since no manuscript evidence has been presented to doubt the virgin birth accounts in both gospels.

Your good friend,
Matthew Janzen

--------------------

SIDENOTE: I once witnessed to a nice gentleman about the falsehood of the Trinity. I asked him what were the main verses he would go to to prove the Trinity to me. His response was 1 John 5:7 and John 10:30. I kindly pointed out to him that 1 John 5:7 was an addition made to the book around the 16th century A.D. He was shocked! Hopefully he went back and checked to see if this was true, and if he did he would have undeniably found such to be accurate. Why? Because there is clear manuscript evidence that 1 John 5:7 is interpolated. Textual criticism is at a point now in the studies of the NT text that we can know what belonged and what did not belong in the original NT. If anyone out there knows of any manuscript evidence that early copies of Matthew and Luke did not contain the virgin birth accounts or even that certain verses are interpolated, PLEASE make me aware of it.

--------------------

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Postby eriqbenel » 03 Mar 2008, 23:12

I reply: I don't know why, and it seems to me personally that I would have had I been them. However, the fact that does remain is that both Matthew and Luke did record the event, and I believe that should be sufficient for us to believe that such truly occurred. The Holy Spirit could have moved upon Mark and John to hone in on other strong points in Yeshua's life. I've often found it strange in my mind that Mark just begins with Yeshua as a full grown man. What happened during his childhood? Only Luke (that I'm aware of) records any happening in His childhood (aside from His birth). All this being said I just believe all of what each author wrote.



Mark probably didn't record the childhood because there is nothing significantly great to record... if there had been a "virgin birth" no scribe or author worth his salt would have left that out.

But forget about Mark and Yochanon, if their gospels are "inspired", why would YHWH leave out such a strong event for almost half a century. I guess all of the people who heard the gospel before Matthew and Luke were written didn't need to know about the "virgin birth"?!

If one author is the only one who mentions something, I still believe that particular something; if two authors mention another occurrence, I don't see any reason to doubt it's authenticity.


You are still comparing other events of the gospels to that of the "virgin birth" story as though its significance is equal any other "occurrence"... that is simply illogical in my opinion.

Your requirement of an alternate manuscript specifically of Matthew or Luke while ignoring the "surrounding" evidence and circumstances is a bit short-sighted. There is a bigger picture to consider.

IF there were no valid "surrounding" evidence and no other open ended questions to consider, I would be right there with you...

But Okay Brother, we will not see this issue the same way. So I agree with you, lets move on to the next issue.


SIDENOTE: I once witnessed to a nice gentleman about the falsehood of the Trinity. I asked him what were the main verses he would go to to prove the Trinity to me. His response was 1 John 5:7 and John 10:30. I kindly pointed out to him that 1 John 5:7 was an addition made to the book around the 16th century A.D. He was shocked! Hopefully he went back and checked to see if this was true, and if he did he would have undeniably found such to be accurate. Why? Because there is clear manuscript evidence that 1 John 5:7 is interpolated. Textual criticism is at a point now in the studies of the NT text that we can know what belonged and what did not belong in the original NT. If anyone out there knows of any manuscript evidence that early copies of Matthew and Luke did not contain the virgin birth accounts or even that certain verses are interpolated, PLEASE make me aware of it.



Point taken, brother. I just don't put all my eggs in the "interpolation" basket. Just like you believe that YHWH "enhanced" the biography of Messiah in later Manuscripts and other authors, if I were that Trinitarian, I could argue that YHWH did the same thing with the gospel of Yochanon.

In other words, YHWH could have "inspired" the INCLUSION of Yochanon 5:7 at a later time, just like you believe He inspired the INCLUSION of the "virgin birth" in LATER gospels.

It is just as imperative to Scriptural interpretation to realize that manuscript "interpolation" is not always the most important or the most relevant issue in all such matters. Other history, other circumstances, other relevant issues must also be taken into consideration, even if "interpolation" cannot be proven.
Shalom in the name of YHWH,

Eriq

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Postby ErichMatthewJanzen » 04 Mar 2008, 10:53

Shalom, Eric,

I'm going to take the position that Mark and John's gospels originally did include the virgin birth story, but were later deleted by false scribes who's intent was denying the Messiah's unique begettal.

Of course I'm trying to make a point here. The above statement would be just as incorrect for me to take as it is for a person to take the other. For me to insist on the above without having a single shred of evidence from the gospel of Mark and John would not be wise, but no matter how much you pointed this out to me I could still insist that the surrounding circumstances and evidence shows that Mark and John originally did contain the virgin birth account.

You wrote:

Point taken, brother. I just don't put all my eggs in the "interpolation" basket. Just like you believe that YHWH "enhanced" the biography of Messiah in later Manuscripts and other authors, if I were that Trinitarian, I could argue that YHWH did the same thing with the gospel of Yochanon.

In other words, YHWH could have "inspired" the INCLUSION of Yochanon 5:7 at a later time, just like you believe He inspired the INCLUSION of the "virgin birth" in LATER gospels.

It is just as imperative to Scriptural interpretation to realize that manuscript "interpolation" is not always the most important or the most relevant issue in all such matters. Other history, other circumstances, other relevant issues must also be taken into consideration, even if "interpolation" cannot be proven.


I reply: The arguments are not the same. The difference is that every single manuscript of 1 John prior to sometime around the 1500's does not contain the Comma Johaneum. Thus the vast majority of the the NT texts give witness to the verse not being original.

With Matthew 1 and Luke 1 there are zero manuscripts that delete the virgin birth accounts... that's a huge difference.

Yes, I do believe the actual manuscripts of the NT (Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew) are the most important/relavent issue on any subject in the NT. This is because if you do not have a verse or verses to use for a foundation, an argument or dispute about a doctrine can continue endlessly - like the one I mentioned about the Messiah coming from the tribe of Judah or Ephraim. No matter how many Scriptures I showed this fellow about the Messiah's lineage being in Judah, he would not accept it saying that all such verses were the "lying pen of the scribes." I finally just quit trying to argue and started praying for him.

What I do agree with you on Eric is that we can discuss the interpretation/understanding of the texts that exist. In other words, just like we discuss Matthew 12:40 with "72 Hour Proponents" we can discuss Matthew 1 and Luke 1 to determine what the intent of the author was originally.

But what if we said to these proponents that Matthew 12:40 is not supposed to be in the Bible? I mean, it's the only evangel that mentions such a time period, right? Of course, this is a position I would never take seeing that Matthew 12:40 has solid textual foundation in the NT, thus a proper understanding of the verse is all that's needed.

Shalom in YHWH,
Matthew

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Postby eriqbenel » 04 Mar 2008, 17:19

But what if we said to these proponents that Matthew 12:40 is not supposed to be in the Bible? I mean, it's the only evangel that mentions such a time period, right? Of course, this is a position I would never take seeing that Matthew 12:40 has solid textual foundation in the NT, thus a proper understanding of the verse is all that's needed.


We have different definitions of "solid foundation". It isn't relevant to my point if Matthew and Luke were "originally" written to include this story, and that there may not be any "interpolations" to pin point.

You seem to keep insinuating that my position is a claim that Matthew and Luke have just "lied" and that I am making that claim with "no evidence". That is not true in the slightest.

IF indeed these gospels were written with those stories in place, there is a multiplicity of monumental surrounding evidence that very strongly suggest that they were written that way as a matter of religious pagan influence.

You seem to take the position of "It was written, therefore I believe it because it is in the canon of Scripture". And in the absence of "interpolation" evidence, you will stand by it.

As I stated earlier, that is a bit short-sighted. I do not believe that the "canon" of Scripture is above scrutiny. Or that of the thousands of manuscript families, the ones that made it into the "canon" are the only records of history that are trustworthy or "spiritual". I am not that naive'.

Do you understand what things really took place at the Council of Nicea? Any person who understands this would have to realize that what we call "Scripture" (the 66 books of the Bible) are not as "divinely" selected as we have been led to believe. ESPECIALLY, the Messianic Scriptures.

That doesn't mean they are necessarily any less truthful or trustworthy in terms of accuracy, but "divine" in selection for "canonization" is another story.

In light of that position, I would therefore have the freedom to scrutinize one gospel writer against another (whether in the canon or not) and weigh the balance against the historical facts. Thus letting the truth fall where it may.

You have not given yourself such freedom, my friend. For your are bound to the belief that Matthew and Luke are divinely "inspired" as evidenced by their "canonization" and that they are infallible and cannot be measured against anything but themselves. I cannot debate against such a mindset.

Nevertheless, all of this brings us back to "interpretation". We can start with the words "found" and "came together" in Matthew 1:18, which I will have to do in my next post, Brother because I am out of time.

Love ya man
Shalom in the name of YHWH,



Eriq

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Postby ErichMatthewJanzen » 05 Mar 2008, 10:45

Shalom, Eric,

Okay, I will just take the position that the gospel's of Mark and John originally did include the virgin birth story, but these stories have been deleted by later scribes who purposefully tried to diminish from Yeshua's birth so as to make people disbelieve the story is authentic.

How would you prove that notion wrong?

We can get into a discussion about the canon of Scripture if you'd like. I definitely do not believe the council of Nicea (325 A.D.) decided the NT canon.

This is the only subject I've ever seen you discuss that you bring up these type of arguments. In all other issues you do an excellent job of explaining your position using Scripture, understanding contexts, looking at Hebrew and Greek words, etc. Even on the issues I disagree with you you still do a great job of presenting your position and rebuttaling other positions. I do not understand why you bring in the "history" argument as well as the "false writings" argument on this particular issue.

As I said before, what you claim here for Matthew 1, I could claim for Matthew 12:40. Matthew is the only gospel that records the time element, so I could just argue against the 72 hour proponents that the verse is interpolated and the discussion is closed. I'm sorry Brother, that's extremely weak argumentation, and you know this for I've seen you point it out to others before on other subjects.

You wrote:

You have not given yourself such freedom, my friend. For your are bound to the belief that Matthew and Luke are divinely "inspired" as evidenced by their "canonization" and that they are infallible and cannot be measured against anything but themselves. I cannot debate against such a mindset.


This is the mindset I have and let me humbly say that I do not feel bad about it. I thought this was your mindset when you presented the "precept teaching" that time. You mentioned that some of us had probably heard people claim that the Scriptures were tainted and had been tampered with, etc. but you didn't accept that.

I believe in the books of Matthew and Luke, just like I believe in the book of Romans. There are those out there though who will throw out Romans and every thing else Paul wrote because they believe that they are looking at the big picture and that Paul does not line up with the rest of the Scriptures.

You also wrote:

Nevertheless, all of this brings us back to "interpretation". We can start with the words "found" and "came together" in Matthew 1:18, which I will have to do in my next post, Brother because I am out of time.


I am certainly willing to discuss the actual text with you.

Now the birth of Yeshua [the] Messiah took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit. [RSV]

Now the birth of Yeshua [the] Messiah was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. [KJV]

Now the birth of Yeshua [the] Messiah was on this wise: When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. [ASV]


SEC defines the words "came together" as: "To convene, depart in company with, associate with, or (specifically) cohabit (conjugally)."

Thayers defines the words "came together" as: "to come together, to assemble, of conjugal cohabitation, to go (depart) or come with one, to accompany one."

I believe that the context of Matthew 1:18-25 shows the meaning of "conjugal cohabitation." In other words - before Joseph and Mary had sexual relations. This same Greek word is used in 1 Corinthians 7:5:

"Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency." [KJV]

The above verse is speaking about a husband and wife not defrauding one another from sexual relations except with consent for spiritual matters, and then afterwards they are to "come together" (have sex) so that they will not be tempted to commit fornication (1 Cor. 7:2).

So Matthew 1:18's use of "come together" does not necessarily imply that Joseph and Mary had never met, but that is a possibility I just do not think that can be absolutely read from the passage. At least it means they hadn't had sex, and at most it means they had never met.

The word "found" in the phrase "found with child" simply means to find. In this case it definitely means that she was found to be pregant. Bibles like the Living Bible and Holman Bible even use the word pregnant here. Thus the understanding is that before Joseph and Mary had sexual relations, Mary was pregnant. But the passage does stop here, the text says she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. In other words, a miracle had taken place. There had been other miraculous births in the past and even in her cousin Elizabeth's case (as we find in Luke), but this was a miracle like no other. The Holy Spirit had caused Mary's pregnancy.

There's much more to be said, but I will leave it at Matthew 1:18 for now seeing that is as far as you previously commented on.

Love you Eric,
Matthew

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Postby eriqbenel » 05 Mar 2008, 20:09

Okay, I will just take the position that the gospel's of Mark and John originally did include the virgin birth story, but these stories have been deleted by later scribes who purposefully tried to diminish from Yeshua's birth so as to make people disbelieve the story is authentic.

How would you prove that notion wrong?


You seem to be skipping right over some of my points. I have moved past the argument that the story may have been "added" more than once, and I am willing to stipulate to the fact that the "virgin birth" may be an original thought of Matthew's and Luke's gospel. So, there is no need to keep defending the interpolation argument.

I don't need to prove the story was "added" to provide valid evidence of it's lack of accuracy. But I want to address your reverse scenario.

It would be possible to prove it wrong if there was enough historical surrounding evidence to validate such a claim. For instance:

If we have evidence that all Yisrael believed in a "virgin birth" up until around the period that Mark and Yochanon were written.

If we had evidence that opposition to "virgin birth" teaching was popular in the period Mark and Yochanon were written and this teaching was the drving religious force of the government.

If we had evidence that most other gospels had the story in there BEFORE Mark and Yochanon were written, then suddenly, after 3 to 5 decades, Mark and Yochanon's gospels appear without it.

If we had a religious council commissioned by the pagan government to determine the authenticity of conflicting gospels, and which would be included in the official, government sactioned Scriptures.


These would all be events to raise VALID questions and speculations. You reverse scenario could be addressed the same way if all of the events surrounding it were equally reversed.


We can get into a discussion about the canon of Scripture if you'd like. I definitely do not believe the council of Nicea (325 A.D.) decided the NT canon.


I don't know how to answer that except to say that maybe we need to discuss it, possibly as a separate discussion. I don't know. But if you don't believe that this council had a HUGE influence on the NT canon, you'd be grossly mistaken.


This is the only subject I've ever seen you discuss that you bring up these type of arguments. In all other issues you do an excellent job of explaining your position using Scripture, understanding contexts, looking at Hebrew and Greek words, etc. Even on the issues I disagree with you you still do a great job of presenting your position and rebuttaling other positions. I do not understand why you bring in the "history" argument as well as the "false writings" argument on this particular issue.



I understand what you mean. I guess these types of issues weren't relevant in other discussions. I am still doing an "excellent" job! :) . Pay excellent attention! I'm kidding... But let me add this..

Interpreting Scripture and discovering facts and truth can be two separate operations!

We can learn to determine what the Scriptures are actually trying to communicate. Once we do that, we can go about the business of supporting the Scripture with the facts of history, science, geology, etc... if they don't match, we need to find out where the error is... Pen of the scribes? Translators? History books? Paganism?

Isn't it comforting to know that when we look at history and science, etc., it actually corresponds to what the Scriptures say? Personally, that strengthens my faith in the Scriptures.


As I said before, what you claim here for Matthew 1, I could claim for Matthew 12:40. Matthew is the only gospel that records the time element, so I could just argue against the 72 hour proponents that the verse is interpolated and the discussion is closed. I'm sorry Brother, that's extremely weak argumentation, and you know this for I've seen you point it out to others before on other subjects.


I don't believe your comparisons are the same. We don't need to look beyond the words in Matthew to argue against the 72 hour theory. The events of history would not be needed or relevant to defeat that argument. Yours is a "straw man" argument.

Brother, did you actually read my previosu post? I told you that "interpolation" is NOT the only argument relevant to this debate... It's not even the most prevelant argument I am making. I "insinuated" this as a possibility and you have clamped onto it like a pit bull. You are still "beating the drum" of interpolation... I have presented other strong points we have yet to address.


This is the mindset I have and let me humbly say that I do not feel bad about it. I thought this was your mindset when you presented the "precept teaching" that time. You mentioned that some of us had probably heard people claim that the Scriptures were tainted and had been tampered with, etc. but you didn't accept that.


Again, learning to properly interpret the words of Scripture and researching historical facts are two separate things.

The MOST important thing is to learn what Scripture actually says. THEN, if a person wishes to debate it's authenticity against the backdrop of historical facts and/or science, we should not be afraid to engage in such a debate.

Not that we "interpret" Scripture by the history books. We interpret Scripture inductively FIRST, and then see what history says. If there is a conflict, we can research where the error is. History can be wrongly interpreted too!

What I am against, are people who use the "Scripture tampering" excuse as a convenient cop-out when the Scripture teaches something against their beliefs. I assure you, I do not do this. You know I don't.

You may think so because you don't agree with me on this issue. But be assured, my good friend, if I am presenting arguments related to Scripture authenticity, I have excellent reasons to do so!



I believe in the books of Matthew and Luke, just like I believe in the book of Romans. There are those out there though who will throw out Romans and every thing else Paul wrote because they believe that they are looking at the big picture and that Paul does not line up with the rest of the Scriptures.



I fully accept Paul's writings because Paul DOES "line up" with the rest of Scripture, so that isn't a valid reason to dismiss the writings of Paul. Again, don't give me "straw man" arguments.

IF there WERE good reasons to question the writings of Paul (even if they were reasons other than "interpolations") I would not be as willing to accept them. You continue to keep suggesting that my questioning the "virgin birth" story is some "mindless", "baseless" decision I am making without any support.

You have just barely scratched the surface of my position. Don't answer a matter before you hear it. Give the debate a chance to unfold a little.
Shalom in the name of YHWH,



Eriq

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Postby eriqbenel » 05 Mar 2008, 20:51

I believe that the context of Matthew 1:18-25 shows the meaning of "conjugal cohabitation." In other words - before Joseph and Mary had sexual relations. This same Greek word is used in 1 Corinthians 7:5:



You have correctly persented the definiton, but I submit to you that your intepretation may not be correct.

Before Yoseph and Miriam had "sexual relations" and before they "COHABITATED conjugally" are two separate things. You can certainly have "sexual relations" without "cohabitation". The "conjugal" part applies to the "marriage" relationship.

It was the manner of the marriage process that the actual "marriage" was sealed when the couple went away to their new place of residence for the first time and had "sexual relations" there. Thus, the marriage is consumated and officially complete.

However, technically, the couple is "married" once the marriage contract between the groom and father is done. SO, even though it wasn't not "socially acceptable" to have sex before "cohabitation", it was not "illegal" in Torah. In the lifetime of Yoseph and Miriam, the Pharisees and Priest had blurred the line between "socially acceptable" and "Torah legal".

My point is, to say that "to cohabitate conjugally" translates firmly into "no sexual relations" may be beyond what the text is actually saying in that instance. The verse in 1 Corinthians may be referring to "sex", but that is because the context may warrant such. There are MANY verses where "come together" (G4905) does NOT mean "sex". Mark 3:20, Yoch. 11:33, and dozens more.

BTW, it could be argued that even 1 Corinthians 7:5 goes beyond "sex" and is referring to ALL acts of "lovingkindness" toward one another as evidenced by verse 3. The word "benevolence" [G2133] is actually "kindness". This is supported by Eph 6:5-7

6:5 Servants, be obedient to them that are your masters according to the flesh...
6:7 With good will [G2133] doing service, as to YHWH , and not to men:




The word "found" in the phrase "found with child" simply means to find. In this case it definitely means that she was found to be pregant. Bibles like the Living Bible and Holman Bible even use the word pregnant here. Thus the understanding is that before Joseph and Mary had sexual relations, Mary was pregnant. But the passage does stop here, the text says she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. In other words, a miracle had taken place. There had been other miraculous births in the past and even in her cousin Elizabeth's case (as we find in Luke), but this was a miracle like no other. The Holy Spirit had caused Mary's pregnancy.



You are right about "find"! That's what it means...

My contention would be:

IF the Holy Spirit PUT the child there by miracle, why would "He" have to "find" it??????

I believe that verse is saying the Holy Spirit did exactly what the words suggest, He "FOUND" her already pregnant. The "miracle" aspect has to be read into the text.
Shalom in the name of YHWH,



Eriq

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More Comments on Matthew 1:18-25

Postby ErichMatthewJanzen » 06 Mar 2008, 11:40

Shalom, Eric

You wrote:

You have correctly persented the definiton, but I submit to you that your intepretation may not be correct.

Before Yoseph and Miriam had "sexual relations" and before they "COHABITATED conjugally" are two separate things. You can certainly have "sexual relations" without "cohabitation". The "conjugal" part applies to the "marriage" relationship.


I agree that the word conjugal applies to the marriage relationship.

It was the manner of the marriage process that the actual "marriage" was sealed when the couple went away to their new place of residence for the first time and had "sexual relations" there. Thus, the marriage is consumated and officially complete.


I agree. The only permission needed is from the father of the woman (Ex. 22:16-17; Num. 30:3-5).

However, technically, the couple is "married" once the marriage contract between the groom and father is done. SO, even though it wasn't not "socially acceptable" to have sex before "cohabitation", it was not "illegal" in Torah. In the lifetime of Yoseph and Miriam, the Pharisees and Priest had blurred the line between "socially acceptable" and "Torah legal".


I know the torah teaches a betrothal period. Deut. 20:7 speaks of a man who has a betrothed woman but hasn’t had sex with her yet. It seems that betrothal is something akin to what we think of as an engagement. However, I would agree with you that if the father has granted permission to marry, the man and the woman may then consummate the marriage when they choose.

My point is, to say that "to cohabitate conjugally" translates firmly into "no sexual relations" may be beyond what the text is actually saying in that instance. The verse in 1 Corinthians may be referring to "sex", but that is because the context may warrant such. There are MANY verses where "come together" (G4905) does NOT mean "sex". Mark 3:20, Yoch. 11:33, and dozens more.


I would agree by saying that the Greek word used in Mt. 1:18 and 1 Cor. 7:5 does not translate firmly into “no sexual relationsâ€

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Postby eriqbenel » 06 Mar 2008, 18:14

[quote]I would agree by saying that the Greek word used in Mt. 1:18 and 1 Cor. 7:5 does not translate firmly into “no sexual relationsâ€
Shalom in the name of YHWH,



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Continuing With Matthew 1:18-25

Postby ErichMatthewJanzen » 07 Mar 2008, 14:49

Shalom, Eric,

You wrote:

[quote]I don’t believe that is true. I haven’t seen anything in the term or its definition or usage that conveys “never metâ€

BrotherArnold
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Postby BrotherArnold » 07 Mar 2008, 17:00

Shalom All,

I was introduced to the idea that the Messiah did not have a SUPERNATURAL birth some years back and I was fully open minded to this idea but the evidence that they presented was not real evidence. I have not found any evidence that would cause me to think that He did not have a SUPERNATURAL birth, as a matter of fact the Scripture teaches that He did have a supernatural birth and that YHWH is His Father in a different way than He is our Father.

When I first heard this doctrine and searched the Scriptures to see if it was so or not, I told myself that there is nothing that says I have to believe in a virgin birth to be saved. I no longer tell myself this because I believe the Scripture teaches that we must believe and confess that He is the SON of YHWH and upon this revelation the true assembly is founded. In order for Him to be the SON of YHWH, YHWH has to be His Father, not Joseph. To this day I have not seen any reason from Scripture as to why I should not believe that He truly is the Son of YHWH and that He had a supernatural birth.

If I go to judgment believing He is the Son of YHWH and am wrong, I have lost nothing but if I go to judgment believing that He is the Son of Joseph and am wrong, I have lost everything because the Scripture teaches you must believe He is the Son of YHWH. It is better to err on the side of caution if you're not sure.

Brother Arnold
Lunar Sabbaths is one of the most provable doctrines in Scripture...

Brother Arnold
See www.lunarsabbath.info

eriqbenel
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Postby eriqbenel » 07 Mar 2008, 23:02

If I go to judgment believing He is the Son of YHWH and am wrong, I have lost nothing but if I go to judgment believing that He is the Son of Joseph and am wrong, I have lost everything because the Scripture teaches you must believe He is the Son of YHWH. It is better to err on the side of caution if you're not sure.



The two do not mutually exclude one another if you understand them properly. In otherwords, I can believe that Messiah is both, the son of Yoseph AND the son of YHWH.

In the proper understanding of what "son of YHWH" means, you don't have to make that choice.


Perhaps the person who presented this evidence didn't do a good job. I hope you haven't closed your mind to taking another look after so many years ago.
Shalom in the name of YHWH,



Eriq

eriqbenel
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Postby eriqbenel » 08 Mar 2008, 01:33

[quote]The term “come togetherâ€
Last edited by eriqbenel on 08 Mar 2008, 12:45, edited 1 time in total.

BrotherArnold
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Postby BrotherArnold » 08 Mar 2008, 05:24

eriqbenel wrote:
If I go to judgment believing He is the Son of YHWH and am wrong, I have lost nothing but if I go to judgment believing that He is the Son of Joseph and am wrong, I have lost everything because the Scripture teaches you must believe He is the Son of YHWH. It is better to err on the side of caution if you're not sure.



The two do not mutually exclude one another if you understand them properly. In otherwords, I can believe that Messiah is both, the son of Yoseph AND the son of YHWH.

In the proper understanding of what "son of YHWH" means, you don't have to make that choice.


Perhaps the person who presented this evidence didn't do a good job. I hope you haven't closed your mind to taking another look after so many years ago.


RESPONSE; What does Son of YHWH mean to you? Was He a son in the same way as us or was He more of a son than us?

Brother Arnold
Lunar Sabbaths is one of the most provable doctrines in Scripture...



Brother Arnold

See www.lunarsabbath.info


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